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12 August 2009 @ 05:40 pm
Hypothetical question (in that the relevant conversation took place probably 10 years ago)  
Suppose someone writes something in a public forum. Anything, it doesn't really matter.

Suppose I respond by saying, "That's kind of ambiguous. I think you mean XYZ, but it could also mean UVW or even RST. Could you clarify, please?"

Suppose the person did mean XYZ.

Is that person justified in saying, "If you understood I meant XYZ, the original statement was not ambiguous and you're just showing off"?
Current Mood: curiouscurious
browngirl on August 14th, 2009 06:37 am (UTC)
My answer is 'no' as well, but I'm going to disagree with all the other commenters as I explain.

There *are* times when people do what that responder accused you of doing. For instance, in a discussion I said something about being a liberal, and another person asked if that meant I supported driving the Aboriginal people of Australia off their land (a policy of the government self-titled Liberal at that time). Being me only younger, instead of simply saying 'no' I played into their hands by flipping out, but they did set out to provoke me. I can see such an exchange having been intended to provoke or to show off or otherwise meanly.


I cannot see it having been so intended by you, nor can I see you even implying it. I can't see it having been intended as showing off by you because you don't pull crap like that, and I can't see it as having been even inadvertently implied because you're better with language than that.

So, in your specific case, my answer is 'no, they were not justified.'
piranha @ dreamwidthpir_anha on August 14th, 2009 08:20 am (UTC)
Re: Hypothetical question
yes, this. :)