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12 August 2009 @ 05:40 pm
Hypothetical question (in that the relevant conversation took place probably 10 years ago)  
Suppose someone writes something in a public forum. Anything, it doesn't really matter.

Suppose I respond by saying, "That's kind of ambiguous. I think you mean XYZ, but it could also mean UVW or even RST. Could you clarify, please?"

Suppose the person did mean XYZ.

Is that person justified in saying, "If you understood I meant XYZ, the original statement was not ambiguous and you're just showing off"?
Current Mood: curiouscurious
Stephen Harrissweh on August 13th, 2009 03:38 am (UTC)
Depends on the likelyhood of people assuming UVW or RST. If 99.9% of the reading population would assume XYZ and you're not reading *censored newsgroup* (where digging up potential misinterpretations is a way of life) then it's possible that, yes, you are showing off.

Notice the conditional statement in my answer.

Basically "it depends". You haven't provided anywhere near enough data for a random third-party to make a reasonable evaluation.